if there is a cookie bar=1 in the foo.com domain, a cookie was placed when the domain was visited as the first party. (so, assumption: a cookie already exists, not a session cookie, not an http-only, cookie with root " / ". This question is not about cookies, but reading.)
In addition, the browser has disabled a third-party cookie and no other plugins, just a clean installed browser with a third-party user disabled. There is no P3P header on foo.com .
Under the above condition, my questions are:
If foo.com/somepage.html was placed in an iframe in another domain (third party)
- Will the browser send cookie
bar=1 to the server when reading the page? - Can JavaScript read cookie
bar=1 on the page? - Do I expect a difference in browser over two scenarios?
Additional question
I do not need an answer because I do not use this script, but it is interesting to know.
Will the browser update the cookie (just like writing) in the above state, if reading is possible (and the old cookie exists, just need an update (and not a new record))?
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